No.

According to Paul, the law produces sin, and without the law, there is no sin. Sin only comes to life when there are commandments to give it an opportunity. He says the only reason we have any desire to sin is that the law makes us feel that way. Where there is no law, there can be no transgression. And 1 John says if someone sins, then there must be a law that they’re breaking, because that’s what sin is.

Yes.

So then why did Jesus think divorce was a sin, even when there was no law forbidding it? Well, according to… Paul, people can sin apart from the law. Sin existed before the law did, and the law was given because of sin that already existed. Or possibly even to increase the sin that already existed? Either way, sin was already there, without the law.